QUESTION: IS the Lord's Supper to be observed today?
REFERENCE: All verses are from the King James Bible which we believe
to be the inspired Word of God.
I. A. Where is the term, "Lord's Supper"?
I Corinthians 11:20 Please note the word "not" in this verse.
B. What place in the Bible is Paul referring to about the Lord's Supper?
Matthew 26: 19-29
Let us now discuss the two questions that have been asked.
1. In I Corinthians 11:20 the "not" is in the verse
A. Into one place-assembly-it is not to eat the Lord's supper.
1. The supper was to be eaten at home not in the assembly place.
Matthew 26:17-18 "At thy house" not at the temple or synagogue (appointed place of meeting)
2. In Paul's letter I Corinthians 11:21 he notes "own supper" in I Corinthians 11:22 their "houses"
The Corinthians had their own houses. We can then reason that they are notunder the doctrine of Acts 2:38-45.
If they had houses of their own, then Paul had not told them to sell all they have nor had the fear of the Holy
Ghost moved them to sell all they had. Nor has the Holy Ghost done that today.
Thus when Paul says ''not'' in I Corinthians 11:20 and I Corinthians 11 :22 he means it.
The thought of the Corinthians having a house legally by the doctrine presented them by Paul (not telling them to sell all they
had) and by their actions shaming them that had not. (Church of God-I Corinthians 11:22, which is the church of
Matthew 16:18 and Acts 2:41 "added unto them") Who is the "them" of Acts 2:41? Matthew 26:20 " the twelve",
Jesus sang a hymn with the twelve, (this is the only record of Christ Singing in the Bible).
Then Hebrews 2:11-12, tells me that the Church of God was the 12 Apostles.
B. Then the doctrine of the 12 apostles is the doctrine of the eating of the Lord's Supper and being told to sell all that they had with the
breaking of bread. Luke 12:32-33
II. In Matthew 26:26 when Jesus took bread he took it fiom the Passover meal. According to Exodus 12:43-49 no stranger shall eat thereof.
This would then exclude Gentiles uncircumcised.
Note: Act 2:22 and Acts 2:36 isn't Peter speaking to all the House of Israel, not to Gentiles.
We see in Matthew 26:28 that the Blood of Christ is for those that break the bread often is for the remission of sins and also for "many" not all
1. Peter refers to remission in Acts 2:38. Peter believes in
Acts 3:19 that their sins would be blotted out at the 2nd coming
the presence of the Lord.
2. Why would Peter tell the Gentiles in Acts 10:43, remission if
that wasn't his doctrine?
We see Paul the apostle of the Gentiles speak differently in Ephesians 1:7, Colossians 1:14, Colossians 2:13.
Paul says to those he preached to that they were already forgiven. Ephesians 4:32 tells us that we
were forgiven for Christ's sake. We do not have to wait for the 2nd coming to have our sins blotted out.
We are already saved I Corinthians 1:18, already forgiven, Colossians 1:14, already sealed, Ephesians 1:13-14.
Then why would we continually break bread looking for the 2nd coming observing the doctrine of the 12 apostles with the
thought of remission of sins.
We are the church which is His Body, Ephesians 1:19-23, I Corinthians 12:27,
We are placed into the Body by one Spirit, I Corinthians 12: 13 and this
Spirit is given to us when we hear the Gospel of our salvation, Ephesians 1:13.
We trust our Gospel and are sealed with that Spirit that places us into the one Body. Paul, the apostle of the Gentiles,
Romans 11:13, preaches the Gospel in I Corinthians 15:3-4. With trust of this Gospel we that are saved have no fear of
remission of sins, but the peace of already being forgiven.
Trust the Lord Jesus Christ to be your forgiveness for He died for our sins
according to the scriptures, and was buried and rose again the third day according
to the scriptures.